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UNLEARN THE LIES - ANSWERING OBJECTIONS TO THE LAST SUPPER BEING PASSOVER WITH ZACH BAUER NEW2TORAH

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UNLEARN THE LIES - ANSWERING OBJECTIONS TO THE LAST SUPPER BEING PASSOVER WITH ZACH BAUER NEW2TORAH

Post  Jude on Sat 08 Apr 2017, 00:49



Published on Apr 2, 2017
Some people are saying that the Last Supper was not Passover. This video is my response to their objections. Zach Bauer posted a video a couple of years ago that, at the time he posted it I agreed with him, but as I have studied this topic more, I have come to a different conclusion. This video is not meant to diminish Zach or his ministry (New2Torah). I simply want to respond to his objections and show that they are not as simple as he might think. 

First, Passover is on the 14th day of the first month and is not a High Sabbath. The High Sabbath takes place on the 15th day of the first month. Numbers 28:16-17, Leviticus 23:5-7

This places Passover at the night beginning the 14th, and the first day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread is a High Sabbath that begins on the 15th. So, if Yeshua and the disciples were eating Passover the night of the 14th, it would have been possible for Judas to buy something for the Feast of Unleavened bread that would begin the the following night. 

Another thing we need to realize is that the Pharisees kept their Passover on the night of the 15th, contrary to Scripture. And because the Pharisees represented the majority voice in such matters, most of the Jews would not have been celebrating Passover the same night as Yeshua and His disciples. 

Modern Jews still keep Passover on the night of the 15th, beginning the Feast of Unleavened Bread, instead of keeping it on the 14th as the Scriptures command. However, we should follow the example of our Messiah and not the traditions of the Pharisees.

So, if the 14th was not a High Sabbath, and the majority of Jews waited until the 15th for their Passover, then what exactly is the problem thinking that Judas might be going to buy something?

You are right, the word "lamb" is not mentioned explicitly, but it is mentioned by implication. The Gospels tell us the disciples were "preparing the Passover", which implies they were preparing the lamb for Passover. So, when it says they went to prepare "the Passover" it is to be understood that they were preparing the Passover lamb. The text even tells us it was on the day the Passover was supposed to be killed. Luke 22:7-13

So, on the day the Passover lamb is to be killed Yeshua told His disciples to prepare the Passover so He can eat it with them. What were they preparing? They were preparing the Passover lamb for supper. It says after the meal Yeshua took the bread and wine, so, what meal did they eat? They weren't only eating bread and wine, they had a Passover meal, which would have included a lamb and bitter herbs. Why would Yeshua say He was going to eat the Passover with his disciples if He really wasn't going to eat the Passover with them?

You claim that Artos always means leavened bread, but that is not true. Artos simply means bread and can be used for leavened or unleavened. We see a very clear example of this when Yeshua breaks bread with the disciples after His resurrection.

- Luke 24:30

These events would have taken place during the Feast of Unleavened bread, but it says He took Artos and broke it with them. This either means they were completely disregarding the command to eat only unleavened bread during the Feast of Unleavened Bread, or Artos can be used to refer to unleavened bread. I think the answer is obvious that they were actually eating unleavened bread. 

We also see artos being used for the showbread in the Temple, which was also unleavened bread. Matthew 12:3-4, Hebrews 9:2

How do we know the showbread was unleavened? It is mentioned in a number of places including the Talmud and the Jewish Historian Josephus, but more importantly, it is mentioned in the Torah, in Exodus 29:23

Therefore, you cannot make the claim that the use of the word artos always refers to leavened bread, nor can you conclude that they ate leaven at the Last Supper. 

I already mentioned that the Pharisees kept the Passover on the 15th instead of the 14th, which explains why they had no problem going out that night to arrest Yeshua. It also explains why they did not want to be defiled that day, because they were getting ready for their Passover seder on the 15th. 

Could this have any connection with Yeshua's warning to beware the leaven of the Pharisees? Over and over the Bible says that Passover is on the 14th, and it never says the Passover is on the 15th. Yet, many have just blindly followed the Pharisees into keeping Passover on the 15th. Yeshua warned us to beware the leaven of the Pharisees, which is a warning against their doctrine. Yet, it is their doctrine tells us to keep Passover on the 15th contrary to what the Torah says. Numbers 28:16-17

The Gospels clearly tell us that Yeshua said He would eat the Passover with His disciples. Luke 22:11

If the last supper was not a Passover, then why did Yeshua and the disciples call it Passover numerous times in the Gospels? If it was not Passover, then what was it?

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